routine number-theory exercise
(n!+1, (n+1)!+1)=1. [For all n \in N.]
[Let n \in N.]
Suppose (n!+1, (n+1)!+1) = K > 1.
Then K has a prime divisor p>1.
We have p|(n!+1) and p|(n+1)!+1.
Since “p|x and p|y” implies that
“p|(y-x)” in all cases, we have
p|[ (n+1)!+1 – (n!+1) ]
p|[ (n+1)n! – n!]
But then (because p is prime) p|n!.
This is absurd since we also know p|n!+1.
No such p exists; K = 1; we are done.
i’ve been cranking out *lots* of number
theory problems… i’ve never taught the
subject at this level of detail and *need*
to do lots of problems (in order that
exercises like this can *become* “routine”.)
but i’ve only *typed up* a few (one
problem set [out of four that i’ve marked
so far]). anyhow, none of the class
had a proof this short-&-sweet so here
it is now for my loyal subscribers.
this is a *great* quarter so far.
getting back to work.
oops, “semester” so far.